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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 17.06.2025 05:34

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

You'll usually find your answer there.

I'm British and feel ashamed of the crimes of British colonialism. What should I do?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

How do you say "I don't speak French yet, but I hope to speak it well one day. It would be a pleasure to learn French with you. Would you like to teach me French?" in French? Could you add audio?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

There's no rule.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

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Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.